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Thiago Santos vs. Magomed Ankalaev Targeted to Headline UFC Card on March 12



A light heavyweight showdown between Thiago Santos and Magomed Ankalaev is in the works to serve as the main event for an Ultimate Fighting Championship card on March 12.

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ESPN was first to report the booking, which is in the process of being finalized. The event does not yet have a location.

A former light heavyweight title challenger, Santos halted a three-bout skid in his last outing, when he took a five-round verdict against Johnny Walker in the UFC Fight Night 193 main event on Oct. 2. After a lengthy stint at middleweight, “Marreta” earned a title shot following finishes of Eryk Anders, Jimi Manuwa and Jan Blachowicz at 205 pounds. The 37-year-old Brazilian gave then champ Jon Jones a difficult test, falling to “Bones” via split decision at UFC 239.

Ankalaev, 29, is one of the fastest-rising talents in the light heavyweight division. The Dagestani has won seven consecutive contests since being submitted by Paul Craig in his Octagon debut at UFC Fight Night 127 in September 2018. Most recently, Ankalaev earned a decisive decision victory against former No. 1 contender Volkan Oezdemir at UFC 267.

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